German Colonialism Sans Eastern Europe

[Ed Stasiak]

How would German colonialism and immigration have played out
if they had been denied access to Eastern Europe and the Balkans?

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Say that in 1138 A.D. Polish King Bolesław III Wrymouth’s testament
leaves the kingdom to one son (instead of dividing it among several)
and this prevents the subsequent 200 years of internal conflict which
effectively blocks German immigration to the east.

Would the Germans have become a maritime nation?

And if so, would we see a much earlier “Age of Exploration” and thus
earlier discovery of the Americas?

Seems to me Germany had a higher population growth than elsewhere
in Europe (or maybe the growth was driven by physical expansion?)
and so these maritime trade efforts would become colonization efforts
much sooner then in the OTL.

[Pete Barrett]

How would German colonialism and immigration have played out if they had
been denied access to Eastern Europe and the Balkans?
http://atlanticsentinel.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/05/1938-Germans-

Europe-map.jpg

https://img09.deviantart.net/f72f/i/2017/148/d/6/

germans_in_eastern_europe_map_by_arminius1871-dbapodv.png

http://3.bp.blogspot.com/-29xBOGAjBBQ/UNqjqHrbfAI/AAAAAAAABC0/3-R2--

LqkoM/s1600/where-germans-settled-by-Nazis-ww2.jpg

Say that in 1138 A.D. Polish King Bolesław III Wrymouth’s testament
leaves the kingdom to one son (instead of dividing it among several)
and this prevents the subsequent 200 years of internal conflict which
effectively blocks German immigration to the east.
Would the Germans have become a maritime nation?

Weren't they anyway? The Hanse was a maritime (mostly) trading league
which lasted until the 16th century, and dominated northern European
trade during the period. They didn't have much in the way of warships,
but nor did anyone else until 1500 or so.

...

[Rob]

Post by Ed Stasiak
How would German colonialism and immigration have played out
if they had been denied access to Eastern Europe and the Balkans?
http://atlanticsentinel.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/05/1938-Germans-Europe-map.jpg
https://img09.deviantart.net/f72f/i/2017/148/d/6/germans_in_eastern_europe_map_by_arminius1871-dbapodv.png
http://3.bp.blogspot.com/-29xBOGAjBBQ/UNqjqHrbfAI/AAAAAAAABC0/3-R2--LqkoM/s1600/where-germans-settled-by-Nazis-ww2.jpg
Say that in 1138 A.D. Polish King Bolesław III Wrymouth’s testament
leaves the kingdom to one son (instead of dividing it among several)
and this prevents the subsequent 200 years of internal conflict which
effectively blocks German immigration to the east.
Would the Germans have become a maritime nation?
And if so, would we see a much earlier “Age of Exploration” and thus
earlier discovery of the Americas?
Seems to me Germany had a higher population growth than elsewhere
in Europe (or maybe the growth was driven by physical expansion?)
and so these maritime trade efforts would become colonization efforts
much sooner then in the OTL.

It would be interesting.

However, I think more likely than an early era of intercontinental exploration and colonization is Germans trying to take advantage if a "soft spot" develops on any Baltic shores or in Hungary.

[Rob]

Post by Rob

Post by Ed Stasiak
How would German colonialism and immigration have played out
if they had been denied access to Eastern Europe and the Balkans?
http://atlanticsentinel.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/05/1938-Germans-Europe-map.jpg
https://img09.deviantart.net/f72f/i/2017/148/d/6/germans_in_eastern_europe_map_by_arminius1871-dbapodv.png
http://3.bp.blogspot.com/-29xBOGAjBBQ/UNqjqHrbfAI/AAAAAAAABC0/3-R2--LqkoM/s1600/where-germans-settled-by-Nazis-ww2.jpg
Say that in 1138 A.D. Polish King Bolesław III Wrymouth’s testament
leaves the kingdom to one son (instead of dividing it among several)
and this prevents the subsequent 200 years of internal conflict which
effectively blocks German immigration to the east.
Would the Germans have become a maritime nation?
And if so, would we see a much earlier “Age of Exploration” and thus
earlier discovery of the Americas?
Seems to me Germany had a higher population growth than elsewhere
in Europe (or maybe the growth was driven by physical expansion?)
and so these maritime trade efforts would become colonization efforts
much sooner then in the OTL.

It would be interesting.
However, I think more likely than an early era of intercontinental exploration and colonization is Germans trying to take advantage if a "soft spot" develops on any Baltic shores or in Hungary.

All that said- when technological conditions ripen, there will be even more German emigration to other people's colonies than there was in OTL. And, since internal history of the HRE would be butterflied, you could theoretically end up with a decent size north German state that becomes a colonial power on par with the Netherlands, only with a lot more colonists to spare.